The Merchant of Venice FAQ

THE MERCHANT OF VENICE

In Act 1 Shylock says: "Yes, to smell pork; to eat of the habitation which your prophet the Nazerite conjured the devil into" (1.3.35). What does Shylock mean? Is he referring to Jesus as a Nazerite?

Yes, Shakespeare is referring to Jesus in this line, but many scholars agree that he made a mistake in applying this title to Christ, because 'Nazarene' is the correct term for a person from Nazareth. Shylock's comment about the habitation refers to Matthew 8:28, where Jesus cast the devils possessing two men into a herd of swine. Shylock is expressing his dislike of Christian practices as Bassanio asks him to dinner.

Does Jessica face discrimination like her father, Shylock?

Actually, although Jessica is herself Jewish, her character is more a perpetrator of discrimination rather than a victim of it. If anything, Jessica's behavior towards her father reinforces the anti-Semitism that pollutes the play. When Gratiano says that Jessica is a "gentle and no Jew" (2.6.51) he says so because Jessica has behaved like a "good Christian" by stealing from the licentious Shylock. Moreover, Jessica says:

When I was with him I have heard him swear

To Tubal and to Chus, his countrymen,

That he would rather have Antonio's flesh

Than twenty times the value of the sum

That he did owe him. (3.2.284-88)

Here we see Jessica's own words supporting the stereotype that Jews are immoral. She describes Shylock's house as "hell" (2.3.2) - explicitly connecting Shylock to the devil himself. And Shakespeare's contemporary audiences were likely left with the impression that Jessica's theft of Shylock's funds is deserved - that the Jew is finally getting what he deserves. This is a large topic worthy of further investigation. For more information, see the "Essays" section of Shakespeare Online.

The Merchant of Venice could easily be classified as a tragedy. Do you agree?

Absolutely. The play is currently classified as a comedy because it shares the basic elements typical of all Shakespeare's comedies. However "there appears in [The Merchant of Venice] such a deadly spirit of revenge, such a savage fierceness and fellness, and such a bloody designation of cruelty and mischief, as cannot agree either with the style or characters of comedy". (Nicholas Rose. Shakespeare. Garden City, New York: Doubleday, 1939 (83)).

Did Shakespeare know any Jewish people?

Jewish communities were first established in England with the arrival of William the Conqueror in 1066. Although Jews soon began to play key roles in English economic development and flourished as doctors and tradesmen, they could not escape the rampant anti-Semitism that swept Europe. Jews were subjected to vicious persecutions, including charges of the ritual sacrifice of Christian children, which culminated with their expulsion in 1290 by Edward I. The exile lasted until 1655, when Jewish scholar Manasseh ben Israel obtained Oliver Cromwell’s assent for Jews to return to London. Thus, the Elizabethan people knew little about Jews, other than the false information handed down through years of propaganda.

Many people feel that The Merchant of Venice is anti-Semitic. Others believe that Shakespeare rises from the bigotry of the day, pleading for religious tolerance through Shylock's famous speech, "I am a Jew. Hath not a Jew eyes?" (3.1.62). What do you think? Tell us on the Shakespeare forum.

Was The Merchant of Venice performed during Shakespeare's lifetime?

Yes. The only two recorded performances of The Merchant of Venice in the 17th century were staged in the spring of 1605, before King James I at Whitehall Palace.